Romans 3:1
1 What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision?
So after all that indictment against the Jew in chapter 2, a logical question would be: What point is there in being a Jew? If they are judged just the same as the Gentile when they break the Law, what is the point? God will address that immediately and expound on that in this chapter. But it is certainly beneficial for us to explore what God's purpose was in setting aside Israel as His holy nation. God is no respecter of persons, which was abundantly clear in chapter 2, so why make this nation that is set apart? What is the benefit of being a part of that nation?
The translation from the Greek here is pretty accurate. The question phrased "What advantage then hath the Jew?" is literally "What then is the advantage of the Jewish one?" and the other question is literally "Or what is the profit of the circumcision?" Something that may be of interest is looking at that word "advantage." It is perissos in the Greek and is used 23 times in the New Testament. It has the following definition.
perissos (an adjective, derived from 4012 /peri, "all-around, excess") – properly all-around, "more than" ("abundantly"); beyond what is anticipated, exceeding expectation; "more abundant," going past the expected limit [1]
This is the same word used in John 10:10 when Jesus is describing the life He brings. I will put it in italics in the verse. Jn 10:10b: "I am come that they (believers in the kingdom gospel) might have (Greek echo, meaning hold onto) life, and that they might have it more abundantly.
Romans 3:2
2 Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God.
So God's answer to verse 1 is that there is significant advantage to being a Jew. The first reason is that God revealed Himself to the world through them. No other nation on earth was given the truth of God, so it should be clear to anyone that being part of Israel is very special indeed.
The Greek was eye opening to me when I was studying this. The first 3 words here are pretty accurate, but there is a preposition not included, and that is kata. More literally, it says, "Much against (kata) every manner." What was more eye-opening is the second part of this verse. The word committed is the Greek root pistheuo, which is our word "faith". This same form can be found in 1 Tim 1:11 where it is also translated committed. 1 Tim 1:11: According to the glorious gospel of the blessed God, which was committed to my trust.
Note the difference between this and the word "committed" in 1 Tim 1:18, which is the Greek word paratithemi. 1 Tim 1:18: This charge I commit unto thee, son Timothy, according to the prophecies which went before on thee, that thou by them mightest war a good warfare. Paratithemi defined this way:
3908 paratithemi (from 3844 /para, "right close beside" and 5087 /tithemi, "to place, put") – properly, to set close beside (right next to); (figuratively) entrust; commit to in a very up-close-and-personal way (note the force of the prefix para) [1]
So knowing that that word in Rom 3:2 for "committed" is the Aorist tense of "faith," we could translate it as "have been entrusted." Then we have the word "oracles." That is the Greek root word logion, which is similar to, but stronger than logos (written word/declaration). Logion has the definition "a divine declaration; a statement originating from God" [1]. There is also a definite article here, so we can translate God's first reason of the Jew being advantageous as this:
For, indeed that the divine words of the God were entrusted to them.
We have God to thank that He revealed Himself through Israel/Hebrews/Jews/Circumcision to the world. Whatever name you'd like to call them by, they were given the majority of what we call the bible today. Technically, the apostle Paul was a believing Jew as Saul after Damascus, and Luke must have been a Gentile proselyte, which would have been considered part of Israel, so it could be argued that the entire bible comes from the Jews. That's pretty advantageous in my book.
Romans 3:3
3 For what if some did not believe? shall their unbelief make the faith of God without effect?
Knowing they were entrusted with the divine words of God, what if some of the nation of Israel didn't believe? What should happen if they chose not to believe the words God gave them? Does that mean that God's faith is made void? As if God made a mistake on the account of their unbelief? An interesting question to pose and God comes across with the immediate answer in the next verse. The same answer that God gives for a few questions in the coming chapters.
The Greek here paints an even clearer picture, as it usually does since those are the original, inspired, inerrant words God gave us. We find the word "gar" right away, which is a conjunction typically translated "for" as it is here, but the purpose is to connect the previous statement with the next one somehow. In other words, the context may have it translated differently. Indeed, actually, and after all are other ways it is translated. Here it could be translated "though" or "indeed" because we were given that the Jews were entrusted with the divine words of God. Indeed, they were given those words, but what if some didn't believe? That's the question being asked here in verse 3.
The phrase "not believe" is the opposite of "committed" in verse 3. In the Greek, the prefix "a" or alpha denotes the opposite. So here we have the root word apisteo instead of pisteo. The word "if" is "ei" which is translated if-factually. It could also be translated "since" in many cases. With all of that said, the first question has the meaning "Indeed they were entrusted with the divine words of God, so what now that some don't believe them?"
Looking at the next question asked, I'll break up a few words for further definition, but it is more literally, "Does not their unbelief abolish the faith of the God?" Again "unbelief" is of the root apisteo and "faith" is pisteo. The definite article is there referring to God. In the Greek, a lot of questions are asked this way "Does it not...?" This is an example of this, where the negative word "me" starts the question. "Me" in the Greek is the negative that is subjective. It will negate the implication of the statement. There is another Greek word that denotes the negative, which is ou. This is used to negate objectually, ruling it out as fact. Lastly I'd like to look at the phrase "without effect." This is the compound word "katargeo," which is made up of kata and argeo. Kata typically translates as against and argeo means inactive or idle. This gives katargeo the meaning of make idle or inactive, bring to nought, abolish, or render inert. I chose to use abolish in my literal translation but all of these ideas get the point across. Did God make a mistake by giving them His words when they don't believe them? Let's look at the next verse for God's answer.
Romans 3:4
4 God forbid: yea, let God be true, but every man a liar; as it is written, That thou mightest be justified in thy sayings, and mightest overcome when thou art judged.
Of course it's not God's fault. God did not make robots. He made people. People have free will and can choose whether or not to believe. The character of God doesn't change, but people change their minds frequently. People have the fallen nature (flesh) in them that quarrels against the spirit, which we'll get into in chapter 7. So God can say that He is true and every person is a liar. To back that up, God quotes Himself in Psalm 51:4.
The Greek in God's response here translated "God forbid" is really the phrase "May it never be." It comes from the negative "me" and the root word ginomai, which means to come into being. I think it's important to recognize this because of the contrast right after that. Ginomai is used again in the imperitive alongside the word "de". It's a very emphatic contrast from "May it never be that God's faith is abolished" to "Now let it be that the God is true..." The definite article is present here.
The Greek "de" is present again to add "Now every man a liar." I think it should be more emphatic than "but every man a liar." It's establishing a rock solid truth here. If we really expand it out, the first part of the verse says "May it never be! Now let it be that the God is true and now let it be that every man and woman is a liar." That sounds more like a definitive statement than what the KJV has, at least in my mind.
The remainder of this verse is also more detailed in the Greek. "That thou mightest be justifed in the sayings" is really "That in any way (Greek an) you may be justified in the words (Greek logos) of you..." The Greek "an" is an interesting word. It has this definition:
an - indicates what can (could) occur – but only on certain conditions, or by the combination of certain fortuitous causes [2]
an - a conditional particle expressing possibility, based on a preexisting condition (stipulation, prerequisite). This adds an important theoretical (hypothetical) sense to a statement which narrows down the sense of that statement. [1]
Also, logos typically means the written word or a declaration. So because it had been written and/or declared that God is true in His word, we can conclude that God is true and every man a liar.
Then we have the Greek nikao for "mightest overcome." Nikao means to conquer or overcome. It's the verb form of nike, which is the noun for "victory." Here it's in the future tense, hence, "might overcome," or we could also say "will overcome."
The last phrase in the Greek threw me for a while getting the tenses and voices to match up. "Mightest overcome when thou art judged" is an accurate translation. The idea is that God will conquer or overcome should any of the men, who are liars, bring judgement. I say that this phrase in the Greek threw me because the word to judge is in the infinitive passive form. Infinitive is just a fancy word for the base of the verb. The infinitive of running is "to run." The infinitive of sleeping is "to sleep." When a word is in the passive, it's referring to someone doing the action that isn't the main subject of the sentence. The main subject is God here in Romans 3:4, so the judging must be coming from somewhere else. Here is the word for word literal translation so you get the idea why I struggled with this for a time. The Greek is followed by the English translation in parentheses.
Hopos (That) an (in any way) dikaiothes (you may be justified) en (in) tois (the) logois (word) sou (of you), kai (and) nikeseis (will overcome) en (in) to (the) krinesthai (being judged) se (your).
Reading it that way in the English makes your brain hurt. Thank God we have had dedicated translators and the means to uncover the original meaning of the original language.
Romans 3:5
5 But if our unrighteousness commend the righteousness of God, what shall we say? Is God unrighteous who taketh vengeance? (I speak as a man)
So now that we established that the unbelief of man doesn't shake the faith of God, what can we conclude from here? In fact, Paul actually writes that the unbelief of man actually commends the righteousness of God. Well if that's the case, what right does God have to take vengeance on man? If man's unbelief is glorifying Him, why is He not happy? I always get a kick out of the times Paul writes that he is speaking as a man. I think of the verse in Isaiah 55:9 and of how little understanding we have in the grand scheme of things. As mankind, we are so finite in our thinking, but come to these conclusions and start questioning God. Just take one moment in history to think about and your mind will be blown, but God knows all about it.
Let's say I share the gospel with someone and they choose to believe in the finished work of Jesus on the cross of Calvary. That's wonderful, right? But this person is 30 years old and every moment of their life led them to me to share the gospel. Likewise, every moment of my life led me to be able to speak the gospel in that moment. Every interaction with every other person, place, and thing led to us getting together in that moment. Think of all the decisions that were made that affected how we were led together in that moment. If just one of them had been out of place, the meeting would not have taken place. Even if that person is 8 years old, they have had 8 years of moments that led to that meeting together. And that's just one thing, because I didn't even mention all the people and things that interacted with that person had their own moments in life that led to that particular interaction. So to keep our sanity, let's just say God is speaking to man on man's terms here to prove a point.
The word for "if" here is "ei" which means if-factually and is sometimes translated "since." Also, the word "de" is here, indicating "now." An alternative translation here would be "Now since the unrighteousness of us commends the righteousness of God, what shall we say?" The next part of this verse is different in the Greek because of the articles that are present. We don't speak this way in English so I'll just record it word for word in translation; "Not unrighteousness the God the inflicting the wrath?" The KJV is a good translation here to make sense of it in English, but I think it's interesting that articles were used for each word in that question.
Romans 3:6
6 God forbid: for then how shall God judge the world?
Here we have the familiar answer in Romans again: May it never be! God is definitely not unrighteous in taking vengeance upon disobedient man. God was never in the wrong. Man was. Adam was the one who chose to disobey God's clear command in the Garden of Eden, and since then all of mankind has been disobedient.
The translation is nearly word for word, but missing an article in the Greek to signify the God. Also of interest may be that the phrase begins with the Greek compound word epei, which is made of epi (upon) and ei (if-factually/since). It can be translated as follows:
aptly if, introducing something assumed to be factual and fitting, i.e. as appropriate to what is assumed. Its sense is, "Assume what precedes is true, and understand what follows to be appropriate and applicable" (i.e. true as well) [1]
God will judge the world, so how else could He do that if He would be unjust in taking vengeance upon mankind? By the way, the word for world there is kosmos, which includes all of creation. It is translated world many times, but can also mean "the order." Note what Thayer says:
in Greek writings from Homer down, an apt and harmonious arrangement or constitution, order [2]
Mankind is part of the created order. In fact, mankind plays a crucial role in the created order even if he seems so small in it (Psalm 8:4). God will judge all things through Jesus Christ (2 Tim 4:1) and He is just to judge mankind.
Romans 3:7
7 For if the truth of God hath more abounded through my lie unto his glory; why yet am I also judged as a sinner?
It's always interesting when God repeats Himself. Clearly this is a question that many of us will struggle with. To emphasize the truth, God has verses 5 and 7 asking a very similar thing. If every man is a liar, that make me a liar. Now if the truth of God abounds as I lie, why am I judged as a sinner? Aren't I helping God's cause by showing His truth?
The answer is the same as in verse 6. Of course man isn't helping God's cause by being liars. It is pointing out the truth of God, granted, but that should make us want to exchange the lie for the truth! Why are we being judged as a sinner? Because God doesn't want His children to be disobedient. Remember, God wants all men to be saved and come to the complete knowledge of the truth (1 Tim 2:4), and His words are profitable for correction (2 Tim 3:16). We shouldn't continue as we are, as broken and depraved sinners, but put on the new man created in Christ the moment we believe that Jesus died, was buried, and rose again to save us from our sins (Eph 4:17-24, Col 3:5-17). We should walk worthy of this calling (Eph 4:1, Col 1:10), to be ambassadors for Him with the message of reconciliation (2 Cor 5:18-20).
Take a moment and think about the picture God gives us with the relationship of parents to children. How would a father react if he told his son not to drop a glass on the floor, yet the son did it anyway to see what would happen and it shatters. Would that father say, "Thank you, son, for breaking that glass to prove I'm right!" and begin celebrating? Would that father not discipline his son for not obeying?
The Greek here is more emphatic than the English again. The verse starts with Ei de, which would mean "Since now." Also, the definite articles are present to have the translation "Since now the truth of the God abounded in my the lie..." The word "through" is the Greek "en" meaning in, within, or among. The rest of the verse is spot on with the Greek.
Romans 3:8
8 And not rather, (as we be slanderously reported, and as some affirm that we say,) Let us do evil, that good may come? whose damnation is just.
Again, further expounding on the false concept that we should continue as sinners to prove God's goodness, we have this emphasis in this verse. So why are we yet judged as sinners although our lies prove God's goodness? Why can't we just do evil so that good may come? We've already looked at the answer to that, and God will most certainly answer that in the ensuing verses. But look at the repercussion of this thinking. It is described as slanderous and that those who think that way are just in their damnation. God is quite clear that there is no middle ground in this life. Each individual is either for God or against Him. If one desires to continue in evil and not trust in the finished work of Christ on the cross of Calvary, God is just in condemning them to an eternity in the lake of fire. I really don't understand the logic of those that choose this fate, so again, I beseech any an all, be reconciled to God! You can enjoy an eternity with Him in Heaven forever! It just takes faith that Jesus took care of your sin problem on the cross (1 Cor 15:1-4, Eph 2:8-9, etc.). God's choice is that all are saved (1 Tim 2:4), but what is yours? Everyone has the free will to choose.
The Greek here for "we be slanderously reported" is the root word "blasphemeo", clearly where we get our word blaspheme. The word for "affirm" is the root word "phemi" which has the meaning of coming to light. That word is in the 3rd person plural, which would mean that this parenthetical though thrown in here was the Holy Spirit saying many others were blaspheming God's apostles of His grace. That hasn't changed much today, has it? We still have hatred spewed at the grace message even from other pulpits. We can certainly learn the lesson presented by James when he said that our tongues should not curse men (James 3:8-10), but also take to heart the command given through the apostle Paul in Eph 4:29. All brothers and sisters that trust in the finished work of Jesus Christ on the cross should be unified in our mutual faith (Eph 4:3-6). We should look to build each other up and not tear each other down, zealously seeking out good works to do after we understand salvation is come upon us through Christ alone (Titus 2:14).
Looking at the phrase "Let us do evil, that good may come" is a bit different in the Greek. It's literally saying "Let us practice the evil in order that the good may come." Now this last part is quite emphatic in the Greek. It literally says "The judgement of them is absolutely right." The definite article is there and the word for "just" is a compound word in the Greek consisting of "en" and "dike". En in the Greek means in or within and dike means just or right. God could have just had the word dike there, but instead emphasized it with the prefix en. Going back to my analogy of the father to his son, do you see how God wants his children to do right and not wrong? God has always abhorred the evil and keeps no secret of that throughout the bible. Sure, He won't take away salvation if one believes in Jesus' death, burial, and resurrection as the atonement for their sin and that one chooses to sin. However, that one will be grieving the Spirit (Eph 4:30, 1 Thess 5:19) and will suffer loss when judgment comes for work done in the flesh (1 Cor 3:10-15, 2 Cor 5:10).
Romans 3:9
9 What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin;
Therefore, what? Are we better? That's a more literal translation, but we're getting to the point of what God is building at through chapters 1 and 2. So here we are, believers in God's grace. Are we better than those others who blaspheme us? Of course not, because both Jew and Gentile are all under sin. We, though saved from sin and death through faith in Paul's gospel, are no different than any other. God is no respecter of persons (remember chapter 2 when God repeated that over and over?). God wants all to be saved. Just because we have chosen to trust in the gospel of God's grace doesn't make us better, it just makes us saved versus unsaved. Remember what God says in Ephesians 2:1-6 and 1 Cor 6:9-11. Anyone who is saved now is so by the grace of God, and was a sinner like everyone else.
God's answer is clear on this with two words in the Greek: ou pantos, which is literally "not all." The rest of this verse is spot on in the Greek.
Romans 3:10
10 As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one:
Now to prove Himself true again, God quotes Himself. I think of going back to verse 4 and the quote of Psalm 51:4 in that He has written it down, declared it before, and God is justified in His words. The verses quoted in Rom 3:10-18 come from Ecc 7:20, Psalm 5:9-10, 10:7, 14:2-3, 36:1-2, 53:2-3, 140:3, and Isa 59:7-8. Looking at that list I think God has quite established that there is "none righteous, no, not one" don't you?
A better translation would be "As it has been written" since the verb there is in the perfect tense. Also of an interesting note is that there is the word "hoti" in the Greek that isn't translated, which simply means "that." So we have "As it has been written, that There is none righteous." The last part of the verse I think did a good job emphasizing what is in the Greek, but wanted to show what the original words are. It's just two words: oude heis. Oude is actually a compound word of ou and de, meaning "no" and "now." Heis is the masculine form of the word "one," which matches the masculine word "righteous (Greek dike)," so the Greek says "now not one."
Romans 3:11
11 There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God.
The Greek in this verse literally says "There is none the understanding, there is none the seeking out the God." Even with just the last two verses, it sure puts mankind in a dismal state. It's easy to gloss over the full extent of the effects of the fall in the Garden of Eden when Adam ate that fruit. I think Romans 3:10-18 really put that all in perspective.
Romans 3:12
12 They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable; there is none that doeth good, no, not one.
The word for "unprofitable" here might be more accurate as "worthless." We may not think of "unprofitable" as being so bad, but God is presenting the state of all of mankind, and it is really that bad. All men and women are bent out of the way and worthless apart from God. That's what the lie gets you, as you become your own god (Gen 3:5). As your own god you now have to save yourself from the judgment of the God. It's a pretty sorry state indeed.
The last part of this verse again has the word for "practice." There is none that practice good, not so much as one.
Romans 3:13
13 Their throat is an open sepulchre; with their tongues they have used deceit; the poison of asps is under their lips:
The first part of this verse is literally "The throat of them a grave having been opened." It may interest some that the word for throat in the Greek is larynx. Sepulchre is the Greek root word taphos, which means a burying place. I think the next part of the verse should really say "Their tongues have been deceiving," since "deceive" is a verb in the imperfect tense, meaning it has been done before and continues onward. The rest of the verse is practically word for word in the Greek.
Romans 3:14
14 Whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness:
The word for "full" here is the root gemo, which means fully occupied with or filled to capacity [1]. Contrast this with pleroo, which indicates "accomplished" by a "dynamic motion moving towards" to reach the desired end (destination) [1]. Also there is telos, which can imply full (fulfilled), but this focuses on the consummating, end-purpose. Here the verbal idea is more "at rest." [1]. There are several words in the Greek that the English has as "full" and I think it's very important to understand which kind of "full" God is talking about. I would encourage the use of a concordance to get the full picture (pun intended).
Romans 3:15
15 Their feet are swift to shed blood:
Swift here is the Greek ekcheo, which means to pour out or bestow liberally [3]. This is a word for word translation.
Romans 3:16
16 Destruction and misery are in their ways:
Destruction comes from the Greek suntrimma, which means fracture, calamity, or ruin [2] [3]. Misery is also accurately translated, coming from "talaiporia," which means literally, a calloused (miserable) condition; wretchedness resulting from ongoing, intense affliction [1]. Not much else to say on these verses since they are word for word with the Greek and very straightforward in meaning.
Romans 3:17
17 And the way of peace have they not known:
Again, spot on translation. The word for known here is the Greek ginosko (gnossis) which is the knowledge by experience.
Romans 3:18
18 There is no fear of God before their eyes.
Of note here is the word before, which is the Greek apenanti, a compound word of apo and enanti. Apo means "away from" and enanti means "before, in the presence of." So apenanti has the emphasized meaning of away from the presence of, or in view of [3]. Clearly, mankind originally has no fear of God even on the radar before they realize the truth of God, which is evident in all of creation (Rom 1:20).
Romans 3:19
19 Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.
The first thing that jumps out at me in this verse is in the first 3 words. "Now we know" is de oidamen in the Greek. De of course does mean "now," but note the different word for "know" here compared to verse 17. We have the rood oida instead of ginosko. Oida means knowledge that is intuitive or perceived and understood. It is different than ginosko which is the knowledge gained through experience. This is a very important distinction in this verse, because it is showing an important doctrine. We perceive and understand that whatever the Law says it says to those under the Law to the point they cannot speak anything to their defense and prove the that all are guilty before God.
Now the original language is quite fascinating here. There are two different Greek words for "saith" in this verse. The first, in "what things soever the law saith" is lego. Lego in the Greek means "I say" but has the idea of causing to lay down or put to sleep [1] [2]. In other words, lego is speaking to the point of a declaration or laying an argument to rest. In the second phrase, "it saith to them," we have the word laleo in the Greek. This word also means "to say," but is just that. A further definition can be to utter a sound, make one's voice heard, chatter [2] [3]. It can be used of people or animals. So here in this verse, we have God telling us that the Law has declared His truth and that truth is speaking or making noise to those in it. The word "under" is the Greek "en," meaning in or within.
The point of this chattering of truth is to stop every mouth. The Greek for "stopped" is phrasso, which has the definition to fence in, enclose; (figuratively) to stop, blocking something off so it can not spread [1]. Who could argue against God, seeing that He is true and every man a liar?
The last part of this verse is more emphatic in the Greek. First, "world" is kosmos, which is all created order. Next, we have a definite article for the God. Finally, the word "guilty" is a compound Greek word of hupo (under) and dike (justice or judicial verdict). So we could translate this as "and all the created order may become under the judicial verdict of the God."
Romans 3:20
20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.
Wow, this is an amazing conclusion that many miss today. Working out the law does not bring justification to the flesh. Instead, what the Law does is to bring about the accurate knowledge (epignossis) of sin. It's an aid for mankind to see his depraved state and understand his need for God's restoration. Note again the declaration that NO flesh is justified by the deeds of the Law. For those in the gospel of the kingdom dispensation, works of the Law were required alongside faith in God. God had dispensed His mandate that faith plus the works is how one was saved from sin and death (Ex 19:5-6). Works of the Law alone saves no one. This should be an eye opener to all who consider themselves religious. Works will not save, even under the dispensation of the Law. Praise the Lord that we live in the dispensation of His grace whereby we are saved by faith in the finished work of Christ on the cross! No works whatsoever are required, even after salvation. But how anyone can justify themselves to live sinful lives after understanding the love of God through His grace in Christ astounds me. I, for one, will choose to be one of those who are zealous for good works (Titus 2:14), presenting myself a living sacrifice (Rom 12:1) because my awesome Father in Heaven deserves every bit of praise I can offer. God does address this thought process in the next few chapters.
"Therefore" here is a compound word of dia (through or on account of) and hoti (in order that or because). This is a more emphatic "therefore" than some other therfore's in the bible. It only occurs 23 times in the New Testament, 4 of them in Romans (1:19, 1:21, 3:20, 8:7). The word "by" is ek in the Greek, meaning out of. Deeds is the Greek ergon, where we get our word ergonomic from. Justified is the Greek verb dikaioo, similar to the noun dike, meaning right or judicial verdict. The last Greek word of interest is enopios which is a compound word of en (in) and ops (eye). So literally this is "in the eye."
With all of that said, I hope the emphasis can be seen that God is putting on this verse. After putting forth the dismal state of man in verses 10-18, God makes the declaration in verse 19 that the point of His glorious, truthful Law is that no one can say anything to defend sinful behavior, and understand the guilt mankind is in. On account of all of that, working out the Law does not justify a man in his flesh, but rather sin is made very clear through the Law. Working out the Law proves God's righteousness and that all are guilty before Him. God is true and every man a liar. If the letter were to stop right here, that would be quite unfortunate, but God needs to lay down the bad news so that we understand the news to come is so wonderfully good.
Romans 3:21
21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
Usually, when we see the word "but" in the English we're ready for a contrast to the previous statement. That's not exactly what's in the Greek. Are you ready for more emphasis from God? "But now" comes from two Greek words that both mean "now": nyni and de. Nyn can mean now, at present, or already, but this is nyni. Nyni means precisely now [1]. Nyni is an emphatic "now" that means, "Now as it was definitely not like this before, or after." [2]. Couple that with de, which also means precisely now, and we have quite the redundant emphasis that God most certainly doesn't want us to miss. I do enjoy these moments where God is so overly emphatic, like in Eph 3:20, because you know that our loving Father doesn't want us to miss the point.
Precisely now, right now, NOW the righteousness (dike) of God apart from the Law is made clear. How? Just look at Paul's message of the revelation of the risen and glorified Savior Jesus Christ. God's justice is made manifest separate from the Law. Before it was seen through the Law as stated in verses 19 and 20. Now, now NOW it is seen separate (choris) from the Law. God will tell us exactly how in verses 22-28.
The word for "manifested" here is of the root word phaneroo, which means light at its simplest. Light was shed on this concept, so manifested is a great translation. "Being witnessed" is the Greek martureo, where we get our word martyr from, and is also an accurate translation. The rest of the verse is spot on with the Greek, but I like to point out words that may be of interest.
One other thing to say here is about these "law and the prophets." Is this the law of Moses and the Old Testament prophets? It can't be. Because we have the overly emphatic now that the righteousness of God apart from the Law is come to light. The gospel given to Paul has law and prophets of its own. I encourage all believers to search Romans through Philemon and note which individuals are mentioned as apostles and prophets of the dispensation of grace. Remember that a prophet tells forth the word of God. A prophet is not limited to predicting the future. Also, if you skip on down to verse 27 we have another law mentioned, the law of faith. Law is a general term that must be defined in the context, so we must be diligent when we see the word "law" to ask "which one?"
Romans 3:22
22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:
God expounds slightly on the news in verse 21 here, signifying that God's righteousness that is manifested apart from the Law of Moses is through the faith of Jesus Christ toward all that believe. This is a nutshell of Paul's gospel, but again, more will be said in the next few verses.
This verse is another where the Greek is more emphatic than the English lets on. We have yet another "de" here which is translated "Even," though it could be "now." How many times can God say something is different right now? Paul's message and doctrine is different than the Law of Moses. Oh, how I wish Christians everywhere would understand this!
Righteousness is again of the root dike. But the phrase "which is by" comes from the Greek dia. Dia at its most basic definition means through, though it could also mean "on account of." The King James version gets the verbiage correct here with the original language in that it is through the faith OF Jesus Christ. The words Jesus Christ are in the Genitive case in the Greek, which shows possession, and the possession is of faith. Unto is the Greek "eis" which is motion toward the point of. "And upon all" is not in the Greek at all. The Greek has "Now the righteousness of God through faith of Jesus Christ toward all those believing. For there is no difference."
Romans 3:23
23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
We come to one of the most familiar verses in the bible here in Romans 3:23. Chapters 1 and 2 just indicted both the Gentile (chapter 1) and Jew (chapter 2) as sinners, concluding all in the dismal state of verses 10-18 in chapter 3. Then God shows that His Word is truth (cf John 17:17) and His Law proves all to be sinners, making clear what sin is, and that no one can make a rebuttal. Then he says that something new has been manifested with several "now's." This new revelation is that the righteousness of God through faith of Jesus Christ is toward all who believe, without regard to Jew or Gentile, because all are sinners. If we didn't catch that in the many times that God said so in chapter 2 where He is no respecter of persons, here is another reminder in 3:23. All have sinned, but all can see God's righteousness through faith of Jesus Christ if they believe.
The Greek has a couple of things worth noting. "Come short" is the word hustereo and does mean to be lacking or fall short. it is used only 16 times in the New Testament, 8 of which are in Paul's letters (Rom 3:23, 1 Cor 1:7, 1 Cor 8:8, 1 Cor 12:24, 2 Cor 11:5, 2 Cor 11:9, 2 Cor 12:11, Phil 4:12). Also the definite article is present, that all come short of the glory of the God.
Romans 3:24
24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:
To best make sens of this verse, we should go back before the message in verse 22 where it was emphasized there is no difference and all have come short of the glory of God. The righteousness of God is made manifest through faith of Jesus Christ toward all that believe, justifying freely by His grace through redemption in Christ Jesus. Ah, a clearer picture of Paul's gospel, where justification and salvation are through faith alone in the finished work of Jesus Christ on the cross of Calvary. This is amazing grace!
The Greek is quite interesting here, and I'll be honest in that a part of it has be a bit puzzled. First, "being justified" again comes from the Greek dike, but it is in the present tense. I think "Justifying" is a better translation there, though the same idea is in the KJV. It is in the plural, so it is referring to the "all" in verses 22 and 23. Being in the present tense, this should alert the Christian that this is the gospel for today, and it cannot be found in the Law of Moses. That means we should not be relying on water baptism (for the priests of Israel), tithes, fasting, sacraments, or anything else to justify us in the sight of God. Only by faith in the faith of Jesus Christ are we saved and justified (Eph 2:8-9).
"By his grace" is really the dative case of grace. Dative usually means the action is toward the noun in the dative. So the justifying freely is to or through the grace of him. "Through the redemption" is a word for word translation, but then we get to the part that perplexed me. The Greek that's left is tes en Christo Iesou. There's an article tes here, but it's in the Genitive, Feminine, Singular form. Christo Iesou is all Dative, Masculine, so the article can't be referring to Jesus Christ. We already have an article, also tes, denoting the redemption. So it's like there's this extra article hanging out in this verse. My take on this is that God is re-emphasizing where the redemption is. The Greek word for redemption is the only word that is in the Genetive, Feminine, Singular form, yet it already has the article tes tied to it. In other words, we would have this:
through the redemption of that (redemption) in Christ Jesus.
As I studied this chapter, I was stunned at how many times God emphasized the change of doctrine here from faith plus works under the dispensation of Law to faith alone under the dispensation of Grace. I also marveled the first time I saw the emphasis of Acts 13:2 where we have the exact moment this message given to the apostle Paul became the new doctrine. God really stresses what He wants us to know.
Romans 3:25
25 Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;
I like how God expands on each thing identified in verses 21 through 26. Look back at verse 21 where God's righteousness is introduced. What righteousness is that? It's explained in verse 22, through faith of Jesus Christ, and it's to all that believe. Who is the all that believe? Well, this "all" have sinned and are in need of righteousness as stated in verse 23. This same "all" includes both Jew and Gentile, as already determined in verse 9, so that's why "there is no difference" in verse 22. Want to know more about Jesus Christ and how God's righteousness is through the faith of Him? It's right here. Jesus Christ was set forth a propitiation through faith in Jesus' blood, to declare God's righteousness for the remission of sins that are past. More on the declaration in the next verse.
There are a few articles in the Greek that are missing in the English. First we have "Whom the God hath set forth." The Greek does not contain the words "to be" here, so it's "Whom the God hath set forth a propitiation." We could also say "as" a propitiation. We have another article denoting the faith in His blood. Remember, this is different than the gospel of the kingdom. In that dispensation, one needed to believe that Jesus is the Son of God and keep the Law of Moses. In the dispensation of grace, which has manifest God's righteousness apart from the Law of Moses, one just needs to believe in the atoning sacrifice of Jesus Christ, that He shed His blood to cover all sins. That's why God is emphatic that this is the faith now.
The phrase "to declare his righteousness" is really "toward the proof" in the Greek. It's two words: eis (toward) and endeixis, which means display, emphasizing the character of the demonstration which is made obvious (undeniable, conspicuous) [1]. Declare sums this up well, but I think we see a clearer picture looking at the Greek. The phrase "that are past" is one word in the Greek, which is a compound word consisting of pro and ginomai: proginomai. Pro usually means before and ginomai means to come to be, so the simple definition is "to come to be before." Also, the word for "forbearance" is paresis, a compound word of para (from beside) and hiemi (let go). It has the meaning to release something closely felt, i.e. an 'overlooking, suspension, remission' of punishment for [1].
Putting what we have together, a more literal translation of this verse may be like this:
Whom the God has set forth as a propitiation through the faith in His (Jesus') blood, toward the proof of His (God's) righteousness through the overlooking of those sins that have taken place before.
An interesting note is that the Greek has "in the forbearance of the God" in verse 26, but that's not the case in the English. Forbearance there is the Greek anoche, which does indeed mean forbearance. After I go over verse 26, I'll combine these two verses together so we can get a better picture of what is being said. The main point is that God is justifying Himself in this action to initiate this age of grace we live in, as shown in the next verse.
Romans 3:26
26 To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.
This is such an awesome declaration of God's plan to restore mankind to right relationship with Him! The same phrase is repeated here of "to declare" which I've already shown is more literally "toward the proof." The proof of what? That God is righteous, just, and the one justifying those that believe in Jesus' atoning sacrifice on the cross. By following His own rules, God made manifest this glorious gospel of His grace through Paul (1 Tim 1:11), despite what Satan has tried to do to thwart Him since the Garden of Eden.
The Greek is fascinating here. Verse 25 has the phrase "eis endeixin" which is "toward the proof, and verse 26 has "pros ten endeixin." The difference? Pros means motion towards to "interface with" (literally, moving toward a goal or destination) [1]. So God is re-emphasizing His righteousness in remission of sins moving toward the proof that He is just and the one justifying the believer in Jesus' propitiation. Both "just" and "justifier" come from the Greek root dike, but "just" is an adjective in the Greek while "justifier" is a verb. "Him which beleiveth in Jesus" is really "the one out of (ek) faith of Jesus."
Of real interest is the phrase "at this time" which is the Greek "nyn kairo." That literally means the "now season." I point this out because this is more emphasis on the change that is going on from the gospel of the kingdom through the apostle Peter, and the gospel of grace through the apostle Paul (Acts13:2, 15, Gal 2:7-9). This is a new dispensing of doctrine to fill up the word of God (Col 1:25).
So let's put verses 25 and 26 together to get the full idea of what is going on, since the Greek is split up a bit differently than in the English.
(25) Whom the God has set forth as a propitiation through the faith in His (Jesus') blood, toward the proof of His (God's) righteousness through the overlooking of those sins that have taken place before
(26) In the forebearance of the God, to move toward the proof of the righteousness of Him (God's) in the now season, to the point of Him to be the just and justifying one out of faith of Jesus.
Doesn't that declaration just make your jaw drop in awe? How amazing is our God to do this and give us this age of grace? How wonderful is it that we may inherit eternal life and complete justification of our sins through faith in the finished work of the Jesus Christ on the cross? Praise the Lord!
Romans 3:27
27 Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith.
Where could boasting be? There is no room for it if God did all the work through Jesus Christ If we had reason to boast it's only found in the flesh, but God said in verse 20 that no flesh shall be justified by working out the Law. Paul talks of what he could have boasted about in the flesh in Phil 3:4-6, yet concludes in verse 7 how useless that all is, especially in light of the knowledge of Jesus Christ in verse 8.
The first question is word for word in the Greek. The phrase "it is excluded" is one word in the Greek, which is the compound word ekkleio. Ek means out of and kleio means to shut, so the translation is accurate in that boasting is shut out or excluded. Why is it excluded? We should already be able to see it is excluded because justification is by faith apart from works, but our loving Father tells us again for our benefit. It is not excluded by the law of works, but by the law of faith.
Really, the question is "Through what law?" since the Greek word there is dia. "Of works" is the Greek "that of works?" by the article and Gentive case of ergon. It is important to note that the negative word "Nay" here is ouchi, which is an emphatic "Definitely not." It is stronger than the negative ou. The last part, the answer in the Greek, is "Definitely not, but rather through (dia) law of faith.
Romans 3:28
28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.
As if we didn't get it yet, we get another conclusion that man is justified by faith apart from works. Note how this is very different from how Jesus Christ told the rich young ruler to be saved in Luke 18:18-22. In that account, the way to eternal life is to believe Jesus is the Son of God and keep the Law of Moses. Here in Romans 3:28 we clearly have justification of the remission of sins through faith apart from the Law of Moses. God told us this truth in each verse of this chapter from 20-27. It amazes me how good at blinding Satan must be, since many Christians do not see the truth of this distinction. Especially that as I study God's Word, I find that God repeats Himself over and over again, to make sure we get it.
The phrase "we conclude" is one Greek word, logizomai, where we get our word logic from. It could also be translated "reckon," but the point is there. The words "without" is the Greek choris again, which definitely means "apart from" or "separate from." The old English meaning of without is accurate to this.
Romans 3:29
29 Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:
Now, if we Gentiles don't get the the "all who believe" include us, we have the next couple of verses here in this chapter. The point of these last three verses is again to emphasize the difference in doctrine, but also to encourage because all can be saved by trusting in what God did through Jesus Christ on the cross.
This is an accurate translation, but the Greek again is more emphatic. The Greek literally asks, "Or is He the God of Jews only?" Then we have the more emphatic ouchi to ask "Isn't he not definitely of the Gentiles also?" If that's not enough emphasis, God gives more with the answer. The "yes" there is nai, which is "A primary particle of strong affirmation; yes, even so, surely, truth, verily, yea, yes" [3].
Romans 3:30
30 Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith.
The next two verses are really once sentence. The English does a bit of disservice by adding the period after faith here. First, for "seeing" we have the Greek eiper, a compound word of ei (if-factually or since) and per (derived from peri, meaning fully concerning all about). We could translate this as "Since indeed the God is one who will justify..." The next thing to address are the prepositions. By is the Greek ek, which means out of. Through is the Greek dia and does mean through. I emphasize this because of the distinction being made here. We again have the difference of the two dispensations of kingdom compared grace, or Peter compared to Paul. Take a look at the verse again, knowing some of the Greek:
"Since indeed the God is one, who will justify the circumcision out of faith and uncircumcision through faith,"
See how this is only half of a sentence? We get the rest of the thought in verse 31 with the question that is posed. Also note that the circumcision, that is Israel under the Law, is justified by God out of faith, that is the working out of the faith Jesus is the Son of God and keeping the Law of Moses (Ex 19:5-6, James 2:17-26, Luke 18:18-22, etc.). God is also right to justify the uncircumcision, which are those in the dispensation of grace, through faith, that is faith that Jesus' sacrifice on the cross is the propitiation for their sins. Two distinct dispensations. God will address what is active today throughout the rest of the epistle. Reference Rom 11:25 and 11:32 for the spoiler.
Romans 3:31
31 Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law.
So since indeed the God is one, who will justify the circumcision out of faith and uncircumcision through faith, do we then make void the Law of Moses through faith? We have the familiar answer of may it never be! Quite the opposite. We establish the Law.
The Greek for "do we make void" is one word: katargeo. This is a compound word of kata and ergo, which has the idea of abolish. Literally, it's "work out against." We have the word oun, which is translated "then" but has the definition "By extension, here's how the dots connect." [1] Then is accurate, but it can also mean therefore. So the question is, "Do we therefore abolish the Law through (dia) the faith?" The definite article is here. Why? To distinguish it from the faith of Israel under the dispensation of Law. Does this new doctrine abolish the Law? May it never be!
The word "yea" is "alla" in the Greek which has the meaning of "but, rather." Establish is the Greek histemi, which has the meaning "to make to stand" [3]. What does all of this mean? This new doctrine doesn't completely do away with the Law of Moses, but rather makes it stand as something glorious that God gave. Israel is not cast aside and completely destroyed through this new dispensation, as we'll see in chapters 9 through 11, reiterating the different dispensations in 11:6. God will work around to that in the course of this letter, and He will say that Israel will all be saved one day when the Law is written n their hearts (Rom 11:1-32, Jer 31:31-34). The Law of Moses is still alive, though we do not need to obey it today for salvation. It will play its role after the dispensation of grace comes to a close at the calling home of the Body of Christ (1 Thess 4:16-17, Titus 2:13, etc.). Today we ought to obey the commands given to us by Jesus Christ through the apostle Paul. THose are the only ones we should consider obeying. I must say again, salvation only depends on our faith in Jesus' atoning sacrifice, but after learning how awesome God is to give the gift of life to us this way, don't you have zeal to obey Him and get to know Him?
References
HELPS Word-studies [1]
Thayer [2]
Strong's Concordance [3]
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