Romans - Verse by Verse Study - Chapter 4

Romans 4:1
1 What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found?

God went to great lengths in chapter 3 to show that salvation was from faith apart from works in today's dispensation and how that was different compared to Israel under the Law of Moses. Well, the Law of Moses was added to the covenant given to Abraham to make sin clear, so does this new dispensation of grace affect what Abraham had? God just stated in Romans 3:31 that this faith apart from works establishes the Law, or makes it to stand as we looked at the Greek. We should expect to see what He means as we unfold what He recorded with Abraham.

Something interesting to note is that Abraham is introduced as the father of us according to the flesh. Who could the "us" be here? What nation do we know exalts Abraham as their fleshly father? It must be Israel. This is important to address especially to them since they were justified by works along with faith up until this point. Now there is no difference between Jew and Greek (Rom 3:9,22-23, Gal 3:28). All must be saved from sin and death by believing in the atoning sacrifice of Jesus Christ. Naturally, Israelites would be curious what this meant about Abraham and the working of the Law. How can Paul use the word us here? He was most definitely a Jew, and called himself a Hebrew of the Hebrews (Phil 3:4-6). It is important to consider even the definition of father and let the context define it, since we see the word used 7 times in this chapter. Later, Abraham is described as the father of all them that believe (vs 11) and the father of the spiritual circumcision (vs 12). In this verse, the point is being made of Abraham our father "as pertaining to the flesh." When we see later that Abraham is the father of all them that believe, it is easy to see the application to any believer in the salvation of God, whether Jew or Gentile.

This verse is very accurate to the Greek. One word of interest is the phrase "hath found," which is the Greek heurisko. It is defined as I find, learn, discover, especially after searching [3].

Romans 4:2
2 For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God.

A few things are important to note right away here. The "if" is the Greek "ei" and is "if-factually." The word "by" is the Greek "ek" which means "out of." Finally, "whereof to glory" is one word in the Greek, which is kauchema, meaning "a boasting." Here we are given the point that if it were factual that Abraham was justified by his works, then he had reason to boast, except that this boast couldn't come before God. Why? Because even father Abraham's works alone couldn't atone for his sins. No one's can. That point was made in Romans 3:20. So God immediately establishes and reminds us that even Abraham, the father of Israel according to the flesh, is not justified in his works alone.

Romans 4:3
3 For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.

The beginning of this verse is a question we should always ask ourselves. Everyone who considers themselves a theologian should especially ask this question. What does the scripture say? If we would just let God speak for Himself and not put our theology into God's holy, inerrant word, there would be no division within Christianity.  Back on this point of Abraham, though, what does scripture say about his justification? Abraham's faith is what was counted for righteousness. it wasn't his works that was counted for righteousness. If you look back in Genesis 15:6 we see where this was recorded of his faith. Wasn't he justified when he obeyed the covenant of circumcision? Look at the account in Genesis 17:23-27. Nowhere does it say anything about justification. The fact that Abraham obeyed should not come as a surprise. It should be natural to obey when Abraham understood God to be who God claimed to be. But again, the work of Abraham did not justify him. How about when Isaac was born and Abraham circumcised him? Look at Genesis 21:1-5. Again, no talk of justification. How about when Abraham was willing to sacrifice Isaac? Look at the account in Genesis 22:1-19. We don't see justification, but we do see a reward that God gives Abraham for obedience. In all of this, it was only faith that was specified as being counted to Abraham for righteousness. That's what the scripture says.

The Greek has more clarity, as usual. The English didn't translate "de" again here, which is a sad habit I've noticed. Also, there is a definite article, so that the scripture says, "Now Abraham believed the God." The phrase "it was counted" comes from the Greek  logizomai, which we interpret as logic, and "unto" is the Greek "eis," which means toward or to the point of. Considering this, we have the following literal translation:

Now Abraham believed the God and it was reckoned to him (dative case) to the point of (eis) righteousness.

Righteousness is still the Greek root dike (dee-kay) as it has been used 4 times in chapter 1, 4 times in chapter 2, and 9 times in chapter 3. We should take the hint that God is really establishing what He considers righteousness as He is laying down this doctrine of the dispensation of grace through the apostle Paul. I can't say enough that it is different than during the dispensation of the Law of Moses. We will see God pose another contrast of these two doctrines in the next two verses.

Romans 4:4
4 Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt.

This should come as no surprise, but God is good to give us what we intuitively know as truth. We just saw this in the account of Abraham. his faith was reckoned as righteousness, but not his works. His works were rewarded, but not from grace. That would defy the very meaning of grace. Think about this goofy scenario. How many of us go to work, sit in a chair, just believe that our jobs for that day get done, and expect to get paid for it? Your employer would owe you nothing in that case, because your work is what is rewarded. To him that works is the reward reckoned of debt. We get that, but God makes it plain here.

This verse is very accurate to the Greek, and we have "de" translated this time. The word "worketh" is from the root ergazomai, meaning to work out (ergonomics). The word for reward here is misthos and has this definition: a reward (recompense) that appropriately compensates a particular decision (action) [1]. It is also translated wages, but it is not used in the famous verse in Romans 6:23. In that verse the word is opsonion which has this definition: from opson, "meat" and onemoai, "purchase" – properly, the purchase of meat (food); later, "ration-money paid to soldiers" (BAGD); hence, wages ("fitting compensation") [1]. I'll say more on that in chapter 6.

The word for reckoned is the same as in verse 3, but the word in the Greek for "of" is "kata," which typically means against or according to. Something else interesting is the word for debt, which is opheilema. This word is only used 2 times in the New Testament: here and Matt 6:12, and certainly has the meaning of that which is owed, or debt.

Romans 4:5
5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.

Working can't earn our way to Heaven. That much should be very clear by now. So how do we get that righteousness then? How did Abraham obtain it? We saw in verse 3 that it was by faith. What does that faith look like? It's the faith in the One that justifies the ungodly that He will do what He says He will do, and that faith is reckoned to righteousness.

We have a lot to look at in the Greek to deepen our understanding in this verse. Little words can make a big difference and those are what I noticed here. Both times we see "but" in this verse, it's the word "de" in the Greek, so it could be translated "now." The word "not" here is "me." This is the subjective negative. I'll provide the definitions here:

3361 mḗ (a particle which functions as an adverb) – no, not. 3361 (mḗ) negates "subjectively," ruling out any implications ("suggestions") that could be involved with what should (could, would) apply.

3361 /mḗ ("not") negates the underlying idea (concept) of a statement, ruling out its possibilities, i.e. all that it suggests on a conceptual or hypothetical plane.

[3361 /mḗ ("not, no") then negates the implications (suggestions) that naturally spring from the negated statement.] [1]

It is not a definite negation, but a hypothetical one. Man has a free will, and God will never force anyone to choose. But should an individual choose to trust in Him, that faith will be reckoned as righteousness.

The word for "on" is "epi" and is more properly translated "upon." The only other word we haven't seen yet is the Greek asebes, which is translated "ungodly." That word has this definition: an adjective which is the negation of sebomai, "to respect" – properly, lack of reverence ("without due respect"), i.e. failing to honor what is sacred – especially in the outward (ceremonial) sense. [1]

Because of Adam bringing in sin and death to all, which God will get to in chapter 5, we all have this nature in us that shows a lack of reverence to God. God is the only one qualified to pass judgment, and if anyone would just believe in Him to restore all things, that faith is reckoned to righteousness. If we believe in God today, He has told us exactly what to believe in for our justification. It is that Jesus died, was buried, and rose again the third day according to the scriptures for our sins (1 Cor 15:1-4). Abraham didn't have that insight in his lifetime, yet he believed in God, that He would send a Messiah (Gen 3:15) and give him personally a son that will turn into a multitude, despite the fact that Abraham was old (Gen 15:1-5). God has always required faith in what he was doing for reckoning to righteousness to those that have faith. We now have the complete word of God (Col 1:25), and the faith needed for justification is so emphatically portrayed for us, but it takes a student of the bible to understand which commands are to us today and which are for our profit (2 Tim 2:15, 3:16). This doctrine of the dispensation of grace was given to the apostle Paul for all of us to obey today and it was this doctrine that made the word of God complete (Eph 3:1-9, Col 1:25). So we should be looking to Romans through Philemon for what we should obey, and treat all else as profitable for our knowledge. It should also be noted that there is no new doctrine to come. The age of grace will end with the calling home of the faithful (1 Thess 4:16-17), and the tribulation period will begin with everyone back under the dispensation of Law, finding themselves dealing with the worst tyrant in history which we call the antichrist (2 Thess 2:3-12). Friends, don't waste another minute. Your eternity depends on what you believe. If your faith is in the finished work of Jesus Christ on the cross of Calvary, your eternity is Heaven with your Savior. If your faith for salvation from sin and death is in anything else, including water baptism, sacraments, confession, or saying what is commonly called the Lord's Prayer every day (Matt 6:9-13), your eternity is in a lake of fire separate from God. Please don't choose the fire. Trust what Jesus did for you and receive the free gift of eternal life (Rom 5:12-21, 6:23, 1 Cor 15:1-4, Eph 2:8-9, etc.).

Romans 4:6
6 Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works,

We're introduced here to the thought that will be backed up in a quote in verses 7 and 8. The quote comes from Psalm 32:1-2. Several times God shows us His truth by backing up what we see and observe with His words that were recorded beforehand. King David had recorded this Psalm under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit and it can be applied still today.

The Greek for "describeth" is stronger than the English. It is the word lego, which is to declare or to lay down to sleep [1]. The word for "blessedness" is makarismos and is completely accurate in translation. The phrase "of the man" is the Genitive case of anthropos with a definite article. I point that out just to make sure that women don't feel left out. Remember, God is no respecter of persons and there is no male or female, all are one in Christ Jesus (Gal 3:28). There is a definite article to signify the God.  The word "unto" is implied in the Dative case of a neuter article. Imputeth is again the word where we get logic from. With all of that, we have this for a literal translation:

Even as David also declares the blessedness of the person to whom the God reckons righteousness apart from works.

I think it's interesting to note that in the first 6 verses of this chapter, the Holy Spirit has had Paul use the most revered men of Israel to show how righteousness is reckoned apart from works. They would have the most trouble understanding this, since until this point the works were required for remission of sins (Ex 19:5-6, Luke 18:18-22, Matt 28:19-20, Mark 16:15-16, Acts 2:38, etc.). It was evident that they needed both the faith and the works of the Law to have eternal life. We should see the love of the Father in how He shows His chosen nation that He changed things in this age, and how these points, which come from Him through important men of Israel's history, are irrefutable.

Romans 4:7
7 Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered.

For clarity, the KJV has "Saying" in this verse, although it was really in verse 6 under the word "describeth." Remember that that word is a declaration, and the declaration starts with the word "blessed," which happens to be the same root word as in verse 6 for "blessedness." The rest of this verse is quite accurate according to the Greek, but I love diving deep into the language, so here we go.

Most literally, this verse says, "Blessed of whom are forgiven the lawless deeds and of whom the sins are covered." The word for "forgiven" is of the root aphiemi, which is a compound word of apo (away from) and hiemi (send). The word iniquities is the noun anomia, which literally is "not law." So we have the not law of those sent away, and the those are blessed. It's much more eloquent to have "Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven," isn't it? But I think it's interesting that "iniquities" means the opposite of law and David was one living under the Law of Moses. When one falls short of obeying the Law, it sure is a blessed thing when those sins are forgiven or sent away.

Covered in this verse is another compound Greek word, which is epikalupto, and consists of epi (upon) and kalupto (cover, keep secret, hidden). Remember, God doesn't destroy sin outright, but covers them. He's been doing that since the Fall in the Garden of Eden (Gen 3:21). To destroy them utterly would in essence be pretending they didn't happen, even though they really did. Can you imagine if God just rolled back the clock in the Garden of Eden and said to Adam and Eve, "Now try that again. I'm not going through the hassle of fixing that problem." That would go against God's perfect nature to have a "just kidding" moment and re-write history just because He has the power to do so. Instead, God stayed perfectly in His own rules and made a way to atone for us despite the sin. The perfect man Jesus came to redeem what the first man Adam legally lost when he handed his God-given earth dominion to Satan in the Garden of Eden. And God did all of this through His sovereignty and man's free will working in tandem, to the point that God never tarnished His reputation or broke any rule whatsoever. That is the amazing power and love of our God!

Romans 4:8
8 Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.

Again, this is pretty accurate to the original language with many of the same words we've already looked at. Interesting to note that "man" here does, in fact mean, "man." It is the word aner in the Greek. Now why would that be since we had the generic term anthropos in verse 6? I had the thought that it is referring to Adam, or more specifically one from Adam, since he was the one in authority and responsible for Eve (1 Tim 2:12-14). It was Adam that bore the responsibility of bringing sin into the world and death by sin (Rom 5:12-21, 1 Cor 15:21-22) and not Eve. Also, when looking at the Hebrew of Psalm 32:1-2, the word for man in verse 2 there is adam. That term meant man or it could mean mankind depending on context, yet there is a difference between that and ishshah, which is the Hebrew for woman or wife. In the context, it looks clear to me that using aner here was just staying true to the original Psalm and really refers to any of mankind. For the sake of argument, the second man created straight from God, Jesus Christ, took all the sin upon Him and became the object of God's wrath so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him (2 Cor 5:21).  Jesus Himself had no sin, so it certainly could be referring to Him since sin was not reckoned to Him. Through Jesus Christ, we can all have our sins forgiven through faith in the finished work on the cross of Calvary. God sees Jesus' righteousness in us and will not impute sin to those who trust in Jesus' atoning sacrifice. God is clear that all are one in Christ, whether male or female (Gal 3:28). Why we see aner here is something to ponder, and I would encourage the bible student to seek out the truth through prayerful study, yet not something to get caught up on.

Impute here is the same word where we get our English logic. The other thing that stood out to me here is the emphatic negative in the Greek, which is just translated "not." It is ou me, combining the subjective and objective negations together. When they are put together in this way, the negation is at its strongest, I suppose as strong as our word never or when we say "absolutely not." Certainly, that man who will never have sin reckoned to him is blessed.

Romans 4:9
9 Cometh this blessedness then upon the circumcision only, or upon the uncircumcision also? for we say that faith was reckoned to Abraham for righteousness.

So it is clearly a wonderful thing to have God not reckon sin to a person, but who does this apply to? Was it only the circumcision, meaning Israel? Or is it for the uncircumcision as well, which would be the Gentile? Because if faith was reckoned to righteousness for Abraham, and Abraham was given the covenant of circumcision (Gen 17:9-14), then we must consider this question. God will answer most clearly in the next verse. We should already know the answer because of the character of God. We know that He desires all to be saved and come to the accurate knowledge of the truth (1 Tim 2:4). But in case there was doubt, God covers it here.

The Greek for the first question here is only slightly different that the English translation, and it occurs at the beginning of the question. It literally starts with "Therefore, this the blessing upon..." Note the definite article. It is the blessing, because there is nothing greater than to have our relation with our Creator God restored by Him not imputing sin upon us. In the second part of the verse, there are only two things not literally translated. One is another article and the other is the word eis, which means to or toward the point of. Faith was reckoned to the Abraham, so there can be no argument as to who God is referring to in this passage, and it was reckoned to him to the point of righteousness.

Romans 4:10
10 How was it then reckoned? when he was in circumcision, or in uncircumcision? Not in circumcision, but in uncircumcision.

I'd like to take a moment and reflect how God walks us through this whole thing so efficiently and logically. Abraham had his faith credited as righteousness. It can't be reckoned of works because that's paying a debt and not grace. David spoke of this as well, that the man who has his sin not imputed is blessed indeed. This should get any Israelite's attention because of the two men mentioned, but also definitely something the Gentile needs to understand. Could this blessing come upon anybody or is it reserved to Abraham and later to Israel because of the covenant of circumcision? Well, Abraham had this faith reckoned as righteousness, but when? How? Was he circumcised yet? Here we have a definitive answer. No he was not. His faith was reckoned as righteousness prior to the covenant of circumcision (Gen 15:6 cf Gen 17:9-14).

The first question is word for word translated. The second question merits looking at a bit closer. The English is accurate for our understanding, but once again, the Greek sheds further light. The question in the Greek literally asks, "Being in circumcision or in uncircumcision?" Note the present tense of the verb. I think this is significant to consider, even though we can understand from the English "when he was in circumcision..." But considering the Greek is in the present tense shows more emphasis. When Abraham is in the state of uncircumcision of the flesh is the time that his faith is reckoned as righteousness. At the time that the covenant of circumcision is dispensed, God has already reckoned Abraham's faith to righteousness. Similar meaning, really, but I see more emphasis there. The answer is word for word with the Greek.

Romans 4:11
11 And he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had yet being uncircumcised: that he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be not circumcised; that righteousness might be imputed unto them also:

What an amazing verse! Here we have God's perspective of what circumcision of the flesh was. Abraham was given this covenant as confirmation of his faith, so that all who came after him would understand the confirmation of their faith, and that they may partake in that same righteousness which is by faith. Circumcision of the flesh was a seal of the faith of the believer. Yet, for Abraham, circumcision wasn't required for his salvation, only his faith was. God reveals in this verse that this was done so that even we today can call Abraham our father, because we experience what he did when he believed and his faith was reckoned to him to righteousness, regardless of circumcision of the flesh.

The word for "sign" here is semeion in the Greek. The word does mean sign, but it's a sign of authentication of the one giving it, or a sign of confirmation [1]. It should be clear that Abraham's righteousness was through his faith alone and that he received the covenant of circumcision as an outward sign to confirm that righteousness.

The word for "seal" is sphragis in the Greek. To authenticate a document during the ancient days, an object was etched (typically a ring) and pressed into soft wax or clay to show ownership of or approval over what was inside. That's where this Greek word is coming from. It's the same root word used in Eph 1:13 when God says that today we're sealed by His Spirit to the day of redemption. Isn't that amazing that everyone can easily have God's approval today? All it takes is faith that Jesus died, was buried, and rose again the third day to save from sin. The moment that faith is true, God seals that person to the day of redemption. We're also told that we were bought with a price (1 Cor 6:20, 1 Cor 7:23), so God does own us by that seal. As such, nothing can ever separate us from God (Rom 8:38-39) because there is none greater. God has given a seal to His faithful throughout time, but here we are told that the point of circumcision in the flesh for Abraham was an outward sign for his faith being credited to righteousness.

The Greek provides more emphasis on the phrase "which he had yet being uncircumcised." It's more literally "of that in the uncirucmcision." We are supplied the words "he had" because they are implied, but note the definite article here again. It's the uncircumcision. A seal of the righteousness of the faith of that in the uncircumsion. Isn't this just like a loving father to really hammer a point home? God is very specific here, and does so to make the next claim.

"That" is really the Greek "eis" and is more accurately "To the point of." A literal translation could read "To the point of him to be the father of all of those believing through uncircumcision, to the point of it also having been reckoned to them the righteousness." Interesting that the faith is referred to here in the singular (I translated the article "to" as "it" though untranslated in the KJV) since we should share a common faith in God to be who He says He is and do what He says He will do. And all who believe in Him, regardless of dispensation, will have the faith reckoned to righteousness. We're going to really hammer down this nail of faith apart from Law in the next few verses.

Romans 4:12
12 And the father of circumcision to them who are not of the circumcision only, but who also walk in the steps of that faith of our father Abraham, which he had being yet uncircumcised.

See? Another reminder that Abraham had his faith reckoned as righteousness before being circumcised in the flesh. Here we have the added emphasis that Abraham would become the father the nation of Israel who would keep the faith and the works. In verse 11, Abraham was the father of all who had faith, even if the fleshly circumcision hadn't taken place. In verse 12 there is the point that circumcision alone doesn't do anything for anyone. It had to be accompanied by faith. Apart from faith in the true God, circumcision would just be a self righteous mutilation. Ouch.

This verse is amazingly word for word in the Greek. Even the definite articles are translated. The only spot it differs is the English "which he had being yet," which must be coming from twoGreek words which just mean "in the uncircumcision." We could translate the latter part of the verse "but who also walk in the steps of that faith of our father Abraham in uncircumcision." There is no doubt that "uncircumcision" in this verse refers to Abraham since it is in the dative singular while the other pronouns and words are all in the plural.

Romans 4:13
13 For the promise, that he should be the heir of the world, was not to Abraham, or to his seed, through the law, but through the righteousness of faith.

This verse took me some time pondering the Greek. The first words in the Greek here are literally, "Not indeed through the law the promise to the Abraham..." I think the KJV translators tried to do service by putting what the promise was next to the word, but at the same time, I think we lost emphasis on God's first point of the verse. The KJV is an accurate translation, but here is the literal English from the Greek:

Not indeed through the law the promise to the Abraham or the seed of him, that he is to be heir of the created order, but through righteousness of faith.

The point is still clear that the promise was given through the righteousness of faith apart from the law. We're just missing the Greek "ou" being translated in the KJV, which means "not" or is the objective negation. The Greek for "the world" here is kosmos, which refers to all of God's creation, not just the land on earth, so that is why I translated it as I did.

Romans 4:14
14 For if they which are of the law be heirs, faith is made void, and the promise made of none effect:

After stating all of that about how righteousness is reckoned through faith apart from works, we have the other side of the argument here. See again how God leaves no room for confusion? He truly does want all people to become His saints and to come to the complete knowledge of the truth (1 Tim 2:4). God very emphatically stated that Abraham had his faith reckoned to righteousness and not his works.

So what if it was works that was reckoned as righteousness? Let's go through that scenario. If that were true, then the faith isn't necessary and the promise stands on nothing. There is simply no point of faith if it's completely by works. Just get the job done. The language is very strong here in the Greek. The word "For" is "gar" in the Greek and is the connecting word of two statements. The word "if" here is the Greek "ei" which is "if-factually." The phrase "which are of" is the Greek "ek" which means "out of". There is a definite article for the faith. The phrase "is made void" is the Greek root "kenoo", which means to empty out, render void; (passive) be emptied – hence, without recognition, perceived as valueless [1]. Kenoo is only used 5 times in the New Testament, and all by Paul: Here, 1 Corinthians 1:17, 1 Corinthians 9:15, 2 Corinthians 9:3, Philippians 2:7. I feel like that's an interesting word study. The phrase "made of none effect" is one compound word in the Greek: katargeo. Katargeo is made of kata (against or down to a point) and argeo (inactive or idle). Putting those two together gives the meaning to make completely inoperative or to put out of use. This word is translated "abolish" a few times to get an idea of its strength. Putting all of this together, we have this translation:

Indeed if they are heirs out of the law, the faith is empty and the promise is completely inoperative.

Sometimes the KJV is written in eloquence and I feel like looking at some of the deeper meanings of the original language emphasize how much God cares for us to know the full truth. This verse is a great example, in that it is translated accurately, but the strength of the words God chose may be missed unless the bible student studies the original language.

Romans 4:15
15 Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.

Here is another verse that has left much confusion in Christianity today. This verse can easily be taken out of context with the phrase "where no law is, there is no transgression." I have heard of some just take that and apply it to the time period between the Fall in the Garden of Eden and when God gave the Law to Israel on Mount Sinai. There was no law then so there was no transgression, right? Wrong. There was wickedness in that time period and those that partook suffered for it. Look at Sodom and Gomorrah or even Egypt. There was technically no Law there either, yet God brought the 10 plagues on them. If there was no transgression, God would have no right to do so.

Instead of ripping this verse from its context, let's reconsider what God has been saying. He has already told us that faith is reckoned to righteousness using Abraham as the prime example. Then God made the flip side argument and put forth the scenario assuming that righteousness is obtained through the law in verse 14. Now He's just taking that to it's logical conclusion in this verse. The law works out wrath. Why? Because there is conviction when there is knowledge between right and wrong. The law says that wrong must be dealt with through disciplinary action. If righteousness is through the law, it needs to be worked out for righteousness, otherwise there is wrath.

Then we come to the second part of the statement. If we're still assuming that righteousness is through the law, then if there is no law, there is no transgression, there is no wrath, and really, there is no righteousness to be had. That's the point of this verse. Let's take a look into the Greek to further our understanding.

I think "because" is a good translation for "gar" here in the linkage of the end of verse 14. We could use "indeed" as well, but the point is that this is linking the concept of the promise being made useless and following the logic to remind that the law works out wrath. The Greek for "worketh" is the compound word "katergazomai." It has this definition:

katergazomai (from 2596 /kata, "down, exactly according to," intensifying ergazomai, "work, accomplish") – literally, "work down to the end-point," i.e. to an exact, definite conclusion (note the prefix kata); bring to decisive finality (end-conclusion). [1]

So this is what the law is doing, bringing to decisive finality: wrath. It has to if righteousness is achieved that way. If someone doesn't keep the whole law, and righteousness is achieved through the law, then wrath is the only conclusion.

The second part of the verse has the Greek "de" translated as "for." I'm not sure that is a good translation. I would prefer "now" there or even "moreover" since this is the follow up thought to the first part of the verse. Something to note as quite important, is when the word "no" appears here. The first time, it is the Greek "ou" and means the objective negation as we read it. The second time, it is the Greek "oude," which is a compound word of ou and de, meaning "neither indeed, nor indeed." I like this example here to get an idea of what God is saying:

oude ("neither indeed," "nor indeed") introduces a statement that is negated factually and deductively (it occurs 137 times in the NT). That is, the negation rules out (invalidates) the statement that precedes it, and what naturally extends from it. This is analogous to the following: Because 100 is not enough, then neither are 90, 80, or 70 because they are all included in 100. Thus if "A" (100 in the previous example) is invalid, so is what necessarily follows (statement "B" – 90, 80, 70). [1]

See how God is just following the thought process to its logical conclusion? He's not saying that all those who lived before the Law of Moses have had no transgression. Rather, He is decisively concluding that righteousness through the Law alone is folly. We see this emphasized in the next verse.

Romans 4:16
16 Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham; who is the father of us all,

This is the crowning conclusion that this chapter has been building toward. God had made the claim that Abraham was the father of us and we looked at why Paul could say that. He was the fleshly father of Israel, and God spoke to Israel that it was faith that was reckoned to righteousness, and not according to the Law only. That is why Paul, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, can conclude that Abraham is the father of us all who have similar faith. See again how God says taht the law alone cannot be reckoned to righteousness, but must be accompanied by faith. He will go over that again to His chosen nation in chapters 9-11.

The Greek merits a good study here. Once more it is accurately translated, but there is so much more strength in the original language. The first word, "Therefore," is the Greek "dia," which typically means "through" but also "on account of." The word "of" used by "faith" and "the law" is the Greek "ek" and more accurately means "out of." The word "that" is the Greek "hina" which means "in order that" or "for the purpose that." The phrase "it might be" is the Greek "kata" which means "against or according to." The rest of the verse is nearly word for word with the Greek. Let's take another look knowing these prepositions.

On this account, it is out of faith, in order that according to grace to the point the promise is sure to all the seed, not to (according to) that out of the law only, but also to that out of faith of Abraham, who is father of all of us.

Here we see that faith being reckoned to righteousness is clearly the case before the Law was given. it was expected that after the Law was given that this faith would continue and those faithful would keep the Law under that dispensation. Today, that program has been set aside, which we will see in chapters 9-11, and we live under grace through faith alone in the finished work of Jesus Christ on the cross of Calvary. We share the same faith in God that Abraham did, so we can count him our father according to faith. Yet through diligent bible study (2 Tim 2:15, 3:16) we understand that we need not circumcise our flesh for salvation, but experience a circumcision of heart made without hands the moment we put our faith in the finished work of Jesus Christ on the cross of Calvary (Col 2:11).

Romans 4:17
17 (As it is written, I have made thee a father of many nations,) before him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead, and calleth those things which be not as though they were.

I like the little reminders God sticks in with the parenthetical thoughts. To back up His statement that Abraham is the father of them who believe in God, He quotes Gen 17:5. We can read this without that parenthetical there, but how like God to leave no room for confusion by once again asserting the truth from His own words. And then God defines the faith in Himself and gives a couple of His characteristics.

This verse starts off with kathos, a compound word of kata and hos, meaning "exactly according to." Exactly as it was written in Gen 17:5, Abraham is the father of many nations. The word for nations there is ethnos, where we get our word ethnicity from, and means a people or people group. Typically, we see this word in contrast to the Jews, but doesn't necessarily mean non-Jew. God says Abraham is the father of Paul, the Roman saints, and all those who believe in the atoning sacrifice of Jesus to cover their sins, and backs it up with what He said a few thousand years ago.

The word "before" after the parentheses is the Greek katenanti, a compound word of kata and enanti. Kata we have seen used many times in the last couple of verses and is there for added emphasis. Enanti means "before" or "in the presence of." So when we take out the parenthetical, include the end of verse 16, and put this in, we have this translation:

Abraham, who is father of all of us, according to the presence of whom he believed, of God...

There is no higher authority than that. God is so emphatically stating that faith is absolutely required for salvation regardless of rules God has dispensed. Faith was required since the Fall in the Garden of Eden (Gen 3:15). Faith was required before dispensing the Law as we see here. Faith was required after dispensing the Law, because the Law by itself saves no one. Faith is the only requirement we have today (Eph 2:8-9). Salvation from sin and death always required faith in God. Who is this God? He's the one who raises the dead and knows the end from the beginning, because He is not bound by His creation. That's what we can get by the two descriptions in this verse, though He is more than that.

There is some interesting things to note on some other Greek words. The phrase "who quickeneth the dead" literally means "the life maker to the dead." We have the compound word zoopoieo, which consists of "zogreo" (life) and "poieo" (maker). Then we have the accusative case of nekros which means "that which lacks life" or simply "dead." The next part of the verse is literally "and calling those things not existing as (hos) existing."

Romans 4:18
18 Who against hope believed in hope, that he might become the father of many nations; according to that which was spoken, So shall thy seed be.

And not we get some more description and insight into Abraham. The word hope here isn't like how we use the word hope today. It is an expectation of what is sure. So look again at what this is saying. Abraham believed in the expectation against' expectation that he might become the father of many nations. Without understanding the account of Abraham, this verse is difficult to grasp. Take a look back at Genesis 12 and observe the conditions. Here we see God tell Abram to get out of his country to the land He will show him. When Abram does, God tells him that his seed will inherit the land. Take a look at verse 4. Abram was 75 years old when this took place. How many people do you know have babies at 75? God gets more specific. In Genesis chapter 16 we see that God has still not provided the child, so Abram and Sarai take matters into their own hands and try to have this child. This is not what God wanted. He rectifies the situation, but look over in chapter 17. God tells Abram and Sarai, whose names He changes to Abraham and Sarah, that the child will come through Sarah's womb in verse 16. Note the response in verse 17. Twenty five years have passed since the promise was initially made and now Abraham is 100 and Sarah is 90. How many women do you know have babies at 90 years old? This is the "against expectation" in Romans 4:18. It is not expected that a couple can have a child where the father is 100 and the mother is 90 years old. But God said it would happen, and Abraham believed God (expected to have this child), and his faith was reckoned to him to righteousness.

A lot of Greek words are here that we've already looked at, so there are just a couple to point out. The phrase "was spoken" has a bit deeper meaning. It is the compound word ereo, which consists of ei (if-factually) and rheo (spoken). This is something factually spoken, and that would be in Genesis 15:5. The word for "so" here is "hos" which means "just as" or "in like manner." The quote is saying that the offspring of Abraham will be like the stars in heaven for multitude.

Romans 4:19
19 And being not weak in faith, he considered not his own body now dead, when he was about an hundred years old, neither yet the deadness of Sara's womb:

What did Abraham believe? God gives us a fuller picture. Abraham wasn't weak in faith, but quite strong about this. He fully believed he would receive this offspring and that he would be a father of as many as numerous as the stars. He didn't even consider that his own body was not able, nor Sarah's body not able. He fully believed that God would do what He said He would do.

The word "weak" here is the Greek root "astheneo", which means to be ill or without strength. The word "in" is actually not there, the faith is in the Dative case, so it would more accurately say, "And not without strength to the faith..." The word "considered" is from the compound Greek word katanoeo, which consists of kata (against or according to) and noeio (to think). This word has the meaning to think from up to down, or think fully against. The word "body" is "soma" and does have that exact meaning, a physical body. The word "now" is "ede" which is an adverb meaning "already." It gets interesting translating the phrase "when he was about an hundred years old." I believe "when he was" is translated from the Greek "huparcho," which has this meaning:

hyparxo (from hyparksis, "under" and arxo, "begin, go first") – properly, already have (be in possession of); what exists, especially what pre-exists, i.e. is already under one's discretion (note the prefix hypo). [1]

The last phrase is literally "and the lifelessness of the womb of Sarah." There's a lot going on there, so putting it all together, we can have this translation:

And not without strength to the faith, he fully thought against the body of him already dead, already being about a hundred years, and the lifelessness of the womb of Sarah.

Such is the strength of the faith of Abraham. Do you share that faith in the finished work of Christ on the cross? Do you fully believe that Jesus' blood atones for all your sins? Do you fully believe that Jesus was dead and has risen again to show Himself the Son of God? What you believe about this affects your eternity. God will go deeper into the faith of Abraham and how we can apply this today for the last few verses of this chapter.

Romans 4:20
20 He staggered not at the promise of God through unbelief; but was strong in faith, giving glory to God;

This is a powerful statement in the English, yet the Greek is far more. We should get the right idea that Abraham believed in what God said though it doesn't make sense from a worldly standpoint. Even more so, Abraham praised God that He could do something like this.

There are a lot of definite articles missing as well as a "de" and an "eis" here. Also, the word "staggered" is the Greek "diakrino." a compound word of dia (through or on account of) and krino (judge). So this word means to thoroughly judge. The word "strong" here is the compound word "endunamoo," consisting of en (in or among) and dunamoo (power or ability - where we get our word dynamite from). The word has the meaning of being empowered or full of power. With this and all the missing articles and "de" and "eis", this verse can be translated this way:

Now toward (eis) the promise of the God he did not thoroughly judge to the unbelief, but was empowered in the faith, having been giving glory to the God.

I chose to use the word "unbelief" in my translation there since we don't have an English equivalent of the opposite of faith. I suppose if we were being very literal, I could have said the not faith or something like that. In the Greek, unbelief is apistia, and faith is pistia. They are polar opposites however you want to translate it.

Romans 4:21
21 And being fully persuaded that, what he had promised, he was able also to perform.

Now we have here the definitive proof of what Abraham believed and was counted to him to righteousness. It is what God had promised for the future, that He was able to do it. Do we believe this in God? Do we believe in the blessed hope that He has for the Body of Christ in 1 Thess 4:16-17? That's our expectation for the end of this age, and we have it to look forward to. There is no Tribulation period, or Jacob's trouble (Jer 30:7) for us. Note that it's called "Jacob's trouble." Why? Because it was for the transgression of Israel that God decreed it necessary. He gave more details in Daniel 9:20-27 and 12 and then in the book of the Revelation. It all has to do with the nation Israel who were supposed to keep the Law of Moses. They were concluded in unbelief and set aside until the dispensation of grace comes to a close (Acts 13, Rom 11). Anyway, it is my heart's desire that all people who call themselves Christians would understand this truth. God is able, and He will do it. Believe it. Let's get unified in the doctrine that God presents and not what man has made up (Eph 4:3-6).

This verse is spot on with the Greek. The word "fully persuaded" is a compound word plerophoreo. It consists of pleres (full) and phero (carry or bring), and has the meaning of carrying out fully. What was Abraham carrying out fully here? His faith in that God will do what He said He will do. If he's carried out fully in faith, he is fully persuaded, so this is a good translation. The other word of note is the word "able" since it is again that word we get dynamite from, the Greek dunatos.

Romans 4:22
22 And therefore it was imputed to him for righteousness.

On account of all of that about Abraham, we get the conlcusion that his faith was reckoned to him as righteousness. God took us through the logic in this chapter to leave no room for confusion. He even used the same words in this verse compared to verse 3. The only Greek word of note is the first, which is dia. The KJV has "And therefore" which is accurate, but it could also be rendered "On account of this."

Romans 4:23
23 Now it was not written for his sake alone, that it was imputed to him;

This verse and the next should come as no surprise. God started off the chapter by telling us that Abraham was the father of all who believe and then defended that statement in the rest of the chapter (verse 1 our father).

The only thing not word for word in the Greek here is in the first few words. "It was not written" is in the Aorist tense, so it is more accurately "has not been written." It's a minor difference, I know, but the Aorist gives the idea that the effect is in the present though the action occurred in the past. Saying "was not written" may give some the sense that it was done and that's that. This still applies to us today, and God is making that concept plain here at the end of chapter 4.

Romans 4:24
24 But for us also, to whom it shall be imputed, if we believe on him that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead;

Isn't that wonderful? We shall also have the same righteousness, on what condition? That if we believe on God that raised Jesus our Lord from the dead. See? Faith alone. No works. If we have the same unfeigned faith of Abraham that God will do it, we will have that credited to righteousness.

Now it's interesting here that the word dia was used in verse 23 in the phrase "for his sake." The word can mean on account of, or on the sake of. We find it again here at the beginning of verse 24 but it isn't translated the same as verse 23. It more properly should read "But for the sake of us also..." God leaves no room for confusion in His original inspired words.

The word "shall be" is the Greek mello, and has this definition:

mello – properly, at the very point of acting; ready, "about to happen." Mello is used "in general of what is sure to happen. [2]

I can't stress enough that God guarantees righteousness on those who believe in Him. It is sure to happen, but it won't just happen. There's that condition of faith as shown clearly here in this verse. If we believe on Him. God's desire is that all are saved (1 Tim 2:4), but He never forces anyone to make that choice. My friend, please consider this choice of what to believe in. In this age, that righteousness is sealed in you and nothing can take it away (Rom 8:38-39, Eph 1:13-14). It wasn't always that way as can be seen when studying the Old Testament. There are no additional rules that we aren't aware of that are coming, as this dispensation is the last (Col 1:25). People plan for retirement, so why not plan for eternity? Make the wise choice and believe that God sent Jesus Christ to save us from our sins through the atoning sacrifice, burial, and resurrection (1 Cor 15:3-4).

It's interesting to note that God doesn't ask the thought of if we believe here. The Greek says, "to whom it is about to be reckoned, to those believing upon the Jesus, the Lord of us, having been raised out of the dead." This verse is a parallel to 1 Cor 15:1-4. If anyone hears and stands on this doctrine, they are saved (1 Cor 15:1-2). The doctrine is in this verse and 1 Cor 15:3-4. This is the foundation of Christianity today and it only comes through Paul (1 Cor 3:10-11, Eph 3:1-9, Rom 16:25). That's why we call it the dispensation of grace, since these rules were dispensed only through the apostle Paul. From Exodus 19:5-6 up until Acts 13:2, the Law of Moses was the set of rules dispensed through which one was saved. Here in this chapter we read that the faith was required along with the works for that dispensation, and that working out the Law by itself could not save. Please study the scriptures and let God show you His truth (2 Tim 2:15).

Romans 4:25
25 Who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification.

In case we didn't know what happened to Jesus, we have this further development. Jesus shed His blood willingly for our sins and was raised out of the dead for our justification. What a loving, awesome God to fix our sin problem for us and offer the free gift of life!

The Greek for "delivered" is paradidomi, a compound word of para (close beside or alongside) and didomi (give). It has the meaning of to give over or to deliver over with a sense of close (personal) involvement [1]. The word "for" here is "dia" in both cases. The word "offences" is paraptoma, meaning to fall away after being close-beside [1]. The word "again" is not in the Greek at all. The verbs here are in the Aorist tense, so the action is done in the past and yet continues to affect the present. With all of that said, it is literally:

Who has been given over on account of our trespasses and has been raised on account of the justification of  us.

That is what Jesus has done for the world, reconciling it to Him while we were yet His enemies (2 Cor 5:19, Rom 5:10). It is true that we all start off as dead in trespasses and sins (Eph 2:1-3) which we inherit from Adam (Rom 5:12, 1 Cor 15:22a), but we can all be made alive again by believing in the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus Christ (Eph 2:4-9, 1 Cor 15:1-4, 22b, Rom 4:16-25).

Please, to all who read this, search the scriptures and believe that Jesus died, was buried, and rose again from the dead to save you from sin and death. Then get the message of reconciliation out to the world by whatever means possible, since the eternity of every individual depends on it, and God has not said a specific day when this age will end. The apostle Paul appears to have thought he would have been taken in what people call the Rapture (1 Thess 4:15-17 - note we in verse 15). It will happen in the twinkling of an eye (1 Cor 15:52) and no one is guaranteed a tomorrow. I wouldn't wish the Tribulation period or eternity in Hell for anyone. God has done His part in reconciling the world to Himself. Now do yours and be reconciled to Him! (2 Cor 5:19-20).

HELPS Word-studies [1]
Thayer [2]
Strong's Concordance [3]